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Old 09-13-2009, 05:38 PM   #4
Ralath
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^Um. Which law of probability is that??? That method sounds pretty sketchy to me.

Let's use a die as an example.

If the trials are independent of each other (which a roulette system should be), then your probability doesn't depend on your past results. So if you roll a 1 the first time you roll a die, the next time you roll the die, the chance of you getting a 1 is still 1/6. The probability hasn't changed.

If the trials were dependent on each other, then yes, I think that would be correct.
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