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04-30-2009, 08:25 AM
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#1
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Lizard Knight
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why is math so painful

i used to like it, then i got to college
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"Broken moves are also vampiric in nature"

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04-30-2009, 09:20 AM
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#5
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Malingerer
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Use mathematical induction!
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We rode on the winds of the rising storm
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04-30-2009, 09:22 AM
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#6
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Goblin Swordman
In-Game Name: yummy
Current Level: skewl
Posts: 463
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n^4 - n^2 = n^2(n^2 - 1) = n*n*(n-1)*(n+1)
Since, n -1 ,n , n + 1 are three consecutive natural numbers, one of them has to be divisible by 3, hence your expression is divisible by 3.
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Primum non nocere
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04-30-2009, 09:26 AM
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#7
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Malingerer
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LOL, the method I was thinking of was, prove it for n=1, then assume it is true for n=k, and then prove it for n=k+1. A bit more elaborate. 
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Credits to Loveless for the great signature!
We rode on the winds of the rising storm
We ran to the sounds of thunder
We danced among the lightning bolts
And tore the world asunder
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04-30-2009, 09:35 AM
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#10
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Goblin Swordman
In-Game Name: yummy
Current Level: skewl
Posts: 463
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I'm unsure if he'd accept that but it's something used liberally in arithmetics.
It follows from this more general statement: For any n consecutive integers, at least one of them is divisible by n.
The proof is relatively painless:
Each number can be represented as nq + r where r < n (due to Euler's integer theorem, or whatever it's called. can't remember now xD)
r is therefore any integer from 0 to n -1
since u have n numbers and they're consecutive, they are essentially:
nq + 0
nq +1
...
nq + (n - 1)
or any valid combination (we don't illustrate this in the formal answer, however).
Normally, you just say since the remainders include all values from 0 to n -1, and there are n consecutive numbers, one of them has to have a remainder of 0, which means the same as one of them is divisible by n.
Again check with your professor if he'll accept this without the burden of proof.
and LOL @ your random rage, Des.
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